All About GOD - Growing Relationships with Jesus and Others
Polygamy in the Bible
Views: 1319
Replies are closed for this discussion.
Replies to This Discussion
-
Permalink Reply by Carla on
-
Bradley,
My personal thoughts on this:
The OT is filled with many things that God allows for a time to show us the results of sin..
These are the things that don't work. Polygamy is one of them. God allows things in this broken world to show us our sin---and show our need for a Savior. war, polygamy, murder, pride etc...list goes on
Anyhow... long article below:
Question: "Why did God allow polygamy / bigamy in the Bible?"
Answer: The question of polygamy is an interesting one in that most people today view polygamy as immoral while the Bible nowhere explicitly condemns it. The first instance of polygamy/bigamy in the Bible was that of Lamech in Genesis 4:19: “Lamech married two women.” Several prominent men in the Old Testament were polygamists. Abraham, Jacob, David, Solomon, and others all had multiple wives. In 2 Samuel 12:8, God, speaking through the prophet Nathan, said that if David’s wives and concubines were not enough, He would have given David even more. Solomon had 700 wives and 300 concubines (essentially wives of a lower status), according to 1 Kings 11:3. What are we to do with these instances of polygamy in the Old Testament? There are three questions that need to be answered: 1) Why did God allow polygamy in the Old Testament? 2) How does God view polygamy today? 3) Why did it change?
1) Why did God allow polygamy in the Old Testament? The Bible does not specifically say why God allowed polygamy. As we speculate about God’s silence, there are a few key factors to consider. First, there have always been more women in the world than men. Current statistics show that approximately 50.5 percent of the world population are women, with men being 49.5 percent. Assuming the same percentages in ancient times, and multiplied by millions of people, there would be tens of thousands more women than men. Second, warfare in ancient times was especially brutal, with an incredibly high rate of fatality. This would have resulted in an even greater percentage of women to men. Third, due to patriarchal societies, it was nearly impossible for an unmarried woman to provide for herself. Women were often uneducated and untrained. Women relied on their fathers, brothers, and husbands for provision and protection. Unmarried women were often subjected to prostitution and slavery. The significant difference between the number of women and men would have left many, many women in an undesirable situation.
So, it seems that God may have allowed polygamy to protect and provide for the women who could not find a husband otherwise. A man would take multiple wives and serve as the provider and protector of all of them. While definitely not ideal, living in a polygamist household was far better than the alternatives: prostitution, slavery, or starvation. In addition to the protection/provision factor, polygamy enabled a much faster expansion of humanity, fulfilling God’s command to “be fruitful and increase in number; multiply on the earth” (Genesis 9:7). Men are capable of impregnating multiple women in the same time period, causing humanity to grow much faster than if each man was only producing one child each year.
2) How does God view polygamy today? Even while allowing polygamy, the Bible presents monogamy as the plan which conforms most closely to God’s ideal for marriage. The Bible says that God’s original intention was for one man to be married to only one woman: “For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife [not wives], and they will become one flesh [not fleshes]” (Genesis 2:24). While Genesis 2:24 is describing what marriage is, rather than how many people are involved, the consistent use of the singular should be noted. In Deuteronomy 17:14-20, God says that the kings were not supposed to multiply wives (or horses or gold). While this cannot be interpreted as a command that the kings must be monogamous, it can be understood as declaring that having multiple wives causes problems. This can be clearly seen in the life of Solomon (1 Kings 11:3-4).
In the New Testament, 1 Timothy 3:2, 12 and Titus 1:6 give “the husband of one wife” in a list of qualifications for spiritual leadership. There is some debate as to what specifically this qualification means. The phrase could literally be translated “a one-woman man.” Whether or not this phrase is referring exclusively to polygamy, in no sense can a polygamist be considered a “one-woman man.” While these qualifications are specifically for positions of spiritual leadership, they should apply equally to all Christians. Should not all Christians be “above reproach...temperate, self-controlled, respectable, hospitable, able to teach, not given to drunkenness, not violent but gentle, not quarrelsome, not a lover of money” (1 Timothy 3:2-4)? If we are called to be holy (1 Peter 1:16), and if these standards are holy for elders and deacons, then they are holy for all.
Ephesians 5:22-33 speaks of the relationship between husbands and wives. When referring to a husband (singular), it always also refers to a wife (singular). “For the husband is the head of the wife [singular] … He who loves his wife [singular] loves himself. For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife [singular], and the two will become one flesh....Each one of you also must love his wife [singular] as he loves himself, and the wife [singular] must respect her husband [singular].” While a somewhat parallel passage, Colossians 3:18-19, refers to husbands and wives in the plural, it is clear that Paul is addressing all the husbands and wives among the Colossian believers, not stating that a husband might have multiple wives. In contrast, Ephesians 5:22-33 is specifically describing the marital relationship. If polygamy were allowable, the entire illustration of Christ’s relationship with His body (the church) and the husband-wife relationship falls apart.
3) Why did it change? It is not so much God’s disallowing something He previously allowed as it is God’s restoring marriage to His original plan. Even going back to Adam and Eve, polygamy was not God’s original intent. God seems to have allowed polygamy to solve a problem, but it is not the ideal. In most modern societies, there is absolutely no need for polygamy. In most cultures today, women are able to provide for and protect themselves—removing the only “positive” aspect of polygamy. Further, most modern nations outlaw polygamy. According to Romans 13:1-7, we are to obey the laws the government establishes. The only instance in which disobeying the law is permitted by Scripture is if the law contradicts God’s commands (Acts 5:29). Since God only allows for polygamy, and does not command it, a law prohibiting polygamy should be upheld.
Are there some instances in which the allowance for polygamy would still apply today? Perhaps, but it is unfathomable that there would be no other possible solution. Due to the “one flesh” aspect of marriage, the need for oneness and harmony in marriage, and the lack of any real need for polygamy, it is our firm belief that polygamy does not honor God and is not His design for marriage. -
-
-
glad it helped Bradley..
When I read these things from the OT, I read it from that perspective..and it helps me clarify things.
Blessings, Carla
-
-
Permalink Reply by David Velasquez on
-
I had not given the Polygamy issues much thought and this morning I did a Google search and found a cool article about it: is worth reading. The person asking the question brings up some similar arguments as yours.
Here is the web page: http://en.allexperts.com/q/Baptists-954/Polygamy-Old-New-Testaments...
You can read the questions asked about the subject there. I will only place the answers here because the brother (Ashley Proctor - 1/19/2006) worked the questions into the answer. Hope it helps.
Answer
Hi Aaron, I hope this answer goes a little beyond the pat response you have heard in the past.
When God first instituted marriage, it is clear to most that He intended it to be an expression of a monogamous union between a man and a woman: "For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united (literally stick) to his wife, and they will become one flesh. " (Gen 2:24). There is no doubt that this pattern of monogamy was violated by some men in the history of the Old Testament, but it was nowhere revoked and is, in fact, reiterated in stronger terms in the last book of the Old Testament:
"Has not the LORD made them one? In flesh and spirit they are his. And why one? Because he was seeking godly offspring. So guard yourself in your spirit, and do not break faith with the wife of your youth" (Mal 2:15).
Malachi was condemning the post-exilic men for marrying additional wives and forsaking the legitimate wives of their youth. He points out that by making only one wife for Adam though He was surely able to make more, God was essentially laying down a principle that He would "seek a godly seed" through a monogamous union between the husband and the wife.
Between these two definite declarations of monogamy,—in the span of several thousand years of recorded history,—fifteen polygamous men are named, including Lamech (Gen 4:19), Abraham (Gen 23:19; 25:1; 16:3), Esau (Gen 26:34; 28:9), Jacob (Gen 29:15–35; 30:4, 9), Gideon (Jdg 8:30), Elkanah (1 Sam 1:1, 2), David (2 Sam 12:8) and Solomon (1 Kgs 11:3).
In none of the accounts surrounding these men is polygamy ever given a nod of approval by God.
But what about the few passages of Scripture, which appears to teach that polygamy was approved in the Old Testament, namely, 2 Samuel 12:7-8 (as you noted)? A careful examination of these verses shows that none can provide conclusive proof that God approved of polygamy. In 2 Samuel 12:7-8, the prophet Nathan confronted David with the words of the Lord after his crime against Bathsheba and Uriah was made known to him:
"Then Nathan said to David, 'You are the man! This is what the LORD, the God of Israel, says: I anointed you king over Israel, and I delivered you from the hand of Saul. I gave your master's house to you, and your master's wives into your arms. I gave you the house of Israel and Judah. And if all this had been too little, I would have given you even more.'” (2 Sam 12:7-8)
These words are sometimes misread to mean that the Lord was telling David that He would give him more wives if what He had given were not enough. But this is not the case. In the first place, God was not specifically speaking about giving wives to David, He was speaking about bestowing upon him the wealth and privileges of Saul. The reference to the wives of Saul is really part of the Hebrew stereotypical expression, which paints a picture of how David received all that once belonged to Saul. It was the custom of the time for the succeeding ruler to receive all of the prior ruler's property and women. This is not a proof that God intends people to practice polygamy. It is contrary to the pattern of marriage established with Adam and Eve and His instructions in Deuteronomy.
Just as divorce was permitted, so too was polygamy. Secondarily, we do not read anywhere in the Scriptures affirming that David even took the two wives of Saul as wives. 2 Samuel 12:7-8, therefore, must not be construed to mean that God approved of polygamy. Although David was not condemned for his polygamy (and therefore we should not read his polygamy with a condemning attitude), we need have no doubt that in the final analysis, David sinned by taking unto himself more than one wife, even though he received them by God's providence, and also by God's providence, it would be through his adulterous marriage to Bathsheba that the Lord Himself would take on human flesh.
God did not approve of polygamy even in the Old Testament. While I would agree that, in some sense, God overlooked the sin of polygamy in the Old Testament (cf. Acts 17:30), it would not be right to say that He approved of it or condoned it. Indeed, although God does not explicitly condemn polygamy until the ministry of Malachi, we may detect a distinct divine displeasure against it,—amongst all that sins that He "permitted" as you have said,—for we can readily infer God's providential chastisement against it in the history of God's people. Do we not see this in the domestic quarrels in Abraham and Jacob's family (Gen 16; 21:9-16; 29:30-34; 30:1-23), and do we not see it in Solomon's departure from the Lord (1 Kgs 11:4-8)?
For anyone, it makes a difference whether one reads the Bible in order to answer "what is the most I can get away with" vs. reading it to answer "what is God's perfect will for me." If someone in Old Testament times read the Bible the first way, they would see that divorce, polygamy and other things are okay.
By the way, if there were ever a justification for polygamy it would seem to have been needed when Adam and Eve were given the cultural mandate to populate the earth. Yet we see the pattern of just one woman and one man.
The same pattern is carried out by Noah at the time of the Ark (Genesis 7:7). Noah took his one wife into the ark. Again, if polygamy were ordained of God, why didn't He tell Noah to take additional wives to repopulate the earth faster?
God instructed Moses that the kings of Israel were to have only one wife: "Neither shall he multiply wives to himself, that his heart turn not away." Deut. 17:17 This is exactly what happened with Solomon. We read in I Kings 11:4:"For it came to pass, when Solomon was old, that his wives turned away his heart after other gods: and his heart was not perfect with the LORD his God, as was the heart of David his father." David's heart was right with God because he did not turn to other gods, not because he practiced polygamy.
Just as divorce was permitted, so too was polygamy. But it does not represent God's will by any stretch. In Matt. 19:3-9 the Pharisees asked Jesus about divorce wondering why Moses allowed for divorce.
"Jesus replied, 'Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning'" (Matthew 19:8). As you pointed out as well, in the New Testament the practice of polygamy would have kept a man from leadership in the church. Paul instructed Timothy:
"A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife..." (I Tim.3:2). Paul also wrote to Titus:
"...ordain elders in every city...the husband of one wife..." (Titus 1:6).
One thought on Luther: He was a great theologian, but he was still a flawed individual, so please don't hang your hat on whether Luther condemned polygamy or not. -
-
-
Hey Bradley,
God's Word is inspired.. I have to reject the idea that is has been corrupted. I would say it is not possible. I believe that God in His Sovereignty is able to protect and keep His Word from being corrupted. The problems is with people and misinterpretations.
Blessings, Carla
2 Tim 3:15-17
15and that (A)from childhood you have known (B)the sacred writings which are able to (C)give you the wisdom that leads to (D)salvation through faith which is in (E)Christ Jesus.
16(F)All Scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness;
17so that (G)the man of God may be adequate, (H)equipped for every good work.
-
-
Permalink Reply by JB on
-
For the benefit of those that have (obviously) not read Rom.14, You will see that God has indeed covered everything that is a sin. Rom.14:21-23, It is good neither to eat flesh, nor drink wine nor anything whereby thy brother stumbleth, or is offended, or is made weak. Hast thou faith? Have it to thy self before God. Happy is he that condemneth not himself in that thing which he alloweth. And he that doubteth is damned if he eat, because he eateth not of faith: for whatsoever is not of faith is sin.
So it is: if you can commit adultery, drink in excess,(get drunk) shoot up, or just not walk in Love or (the fruit Spirit), without having a conviction, or a quickening in your spirit or heart, then there are one of two things that needs to be settled in your heart! You either need to get born again, or stop rebelling against the Grace of God, or the Holy Spirit. Bible talks about this as having a froward mind, or heart. Webster defines froward as being habitually disposed to disobedience and opposition, rebellious, or contrary.
So in this one passage of scripture Rom.14, is the revelation of every sin. (what ever is not of faith covers it all) Faith, being a conviction and or persuasion of the heart. Also known as Grace, a divine influence upon the heart. See the laws of God are written in our hearts, not on paper!!
Joe
-
-
-
Brad,
Sorry you saw this as sarcasm, I didn’t mean for it to be, nor did I intend to sound condescending. It was really to those that have not read the passage in question, or have not understood it’s meaning.
You will find there’s a lot of Christians that think they have faith, a faith that is built on sense knowledge and not on the prompting of the Holy Spirit. is nothing more than a feigned faith, with no power.
The link you posted is a good example, (especially the parts that I read) of a feigned faith. A faith that is mixed with sense knowledge. Or a faith that must be perceived by the five gateways to the brain. (I will read the rest of the link later)
Without sounding too sarcastic, I’m sure you understand that when we speak of the heart, we are not talking about our blood pump, but the whole of the inner man, which of course includes the recreated spirit, the mind, will and emotions, as well as our conscience, all of which must be in agreement. Otherwise we will have: what is called a “wavering faith“ or double mindedness, which will not produce anything “of the Lord“,
and if you will notice that some will try to use the words or syntax “of the Lord“, interchangeably with “from the Lord” as in James 1, which is a vast difference, depending on ones knowledge of the Word. This also is not to be taken as sarcasm, but for the benefit of those that don’t understand the difference in the two. If you do, then please, just over look this explanation and you will still love me. LOL
When we say we have received something “of the Lord” we are acknowledging that it is a finished work of God. When we are saying that it is something “from the Lord” we are receiving it at that time. When we are trying to receive something from the Lord, we are in expectation, as was John’s Baptism, They were waiting for the Holy Spirit to come, they hadn’t received it yet. John’s Baptism was only unto repentance. They hadn’t been filled with the Spirit yet.
Some will think that just because they claim something it will happen, because they read it in the bible. In other words they are trying to work the principles, it becomes theory, not a reality. When the Word becomes a reality, you will walk in the victory that is promised in the Word. The bible says, according to your faith, be it unto you. Mat.9:29, So when the New Creation becomes a reality to you, you will be able to walk by faith, and all the things that we have been talking about, whether or not they are “sin, unclean, or impure” will be evident to the spirit of the new creation man. There will not even be a question, because you have the nature and the mind of Christ and it will be in your spirit, as all the Laws of God are. Then you will see that “all things indeed are pure” It is not the “thing” itself that is impure or unclean or sin, but the yielding to the temptation or going against the conviction of your heart, not necessarily the mind that makes it a sin, or impure. Therefore you can’t be walking in ,or by faith and ignoring the prompting of the Holy Spirit, or conviction.
For the sake of time and space, I will only refer to the scripture that explains this.Deut.30:11-14, and also in Rom.10:7-11, The laws of God are written in your heart, and one needs not ask God to reveal them to him, because one should know, what is and what is not, sin, impurity, unclean etc.
In Rom.7: 7 He had not known sin, but by the law. For he had not known lust, except the law had said, thou shalt not covet.
So those commandments are now written in our hearts, and becomes our new nature, not in our minds, as a law for us to try to abide by.
If it is just in the mind it will then become works. And if you break one of them, you will come under condemnation and the bible says that there is no condemnation to them that are in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, (their way of thinking) but after the Spirit.
2Pet.1:2-3 all things that pertains unto life and godliness has been given to you, through the knowledge of Him.
Question?? What is from faith? what is of faith? and what is by faith?? Or do we see them as being synonymous?
Joe
-
-
Permalink Reply by Leonard T on
-
Bradley,
The Word of God says the following:
RO 2:15 Which show the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and their thoughts the mean while accusing or else excusing one another;)
Lord Bless,
LT -
-
-
Bradley,
You're welcome. Good research tools help too :-)
Lord Bless,
LT -
-
-
The Holy Spirit brings the verses to remembrance.. i use the tools to check location of the scripture, and confirm context. I have certain scriptures memorized..but i don't necessarily know where they are. :-)
-
-
-
Bradley,
Not Google, but Bible research tools such as books and computer programs that have various tools for researching and searching the Scripture. One example is e-Sword.
Lord Bless,
LT -
-
-
What - LT and Carla use research tools? Never!!
Well - I have you know that I have it all memorized. NOT!! Hahaha
Naw, Like my beloved Carla said, God brings a scripture up and I then Google or use my numerous research tools. We are living in bless times you all.
Love to you all family :)
-
Welcome to
All About GOD
The Good News
Meet Face-to-Face & Collaborate
© 2024 Created by AllAboutGOD.com.
Powered by
