Welcome
Glad you joined our wonderful internet family, sharing the love of Christ, learning and growing in your spiritual life.And as a bonus making wonderful friends.
May you experience a wonderful fellowship and growth with all the others by joining in the groups and forums and share the love of Christ.
Blessings Nienie
Greetings in the Lord! This is Bob, one of TheNET Moderators. Welcome! We're glad you are here!
Unlike some other social networks, we prohibit advertising, doing business, asking for money, goods, or personal information or sending spam. Please do not do these things or you may be banned from this network and we certainly would not want that to happen! For more information, please read our Membership Agreement.
I have included some links to help you navigate around the site. You may want to check out the Footprints group, the Links for Growth forum for great tips on how to grow in Christ, and Miracle Grow to help you get closer to God every day.
Once again, thanks for joining TheNET. I hope you make lots of good friends here and keep growing in the wisdom and knowledge of the Lord.
Don't hesitate to ask if you have any questions. I look forward to getting to know you.
Yes, I agree the name Immanuel means "God with us." Immanuel is the name that will be called to the Child. It doesn't necessarily mean that the child is God.
Peter himself was called Cephas (John 1:42), meaning Stone. It doesn't mean that Peter is a stone in his nature.
And even "James the son of Zebedee and John the brother of James, to whom He gave the name Boanerges, that is, "Sons of Thunder"; (Mark 3:17). It doesn't mean that Zebedee is a Thunder in his nature nor his sons are thunders.
Even Elijah which means "God is Lord," Elisha which means "God is Salvation," and Daniel which means "God is Judge." All of them are men. The names they have don't have anything to do with their state of being.
Just like our Lord Jesus Christ, one of His names is Immanuel, which means "God with us." It has nothing to do with His state of being.
And about John 8:58, here's what the Bible states:
"Jesus said to them, "Most assuredly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM."
What does it mean that before Abraham was our Lord Jesus Christ?
In I Peter 1:20 Today's English Version, this is what is written:
"He had been chosen by God before the creation of the world and was revealed in these last days for your sake."
He was in the plan of God even before the world was created or even before Abraham.
To tell you the truth, there is nothing in the Scriptures that teaches about Trinity... that is why they still have to CREATE such doctrine through a council.
About John 1:1, 14. It doesn't teaches about the divinity of Christ either. Confusions about this verse arose because of the term "word." What does it mean anyway? Word of God or a plan. It doesn't mean Christ who is already existed.
Is it in the scriptures that Christ began as a plan or a promise of God?
In Romans 1:2-3 Today's English Version, this is what is written:
"The Good News was promised long ago by God through his prophets, as written in the Holy Scriptures. It is about his Son, our Lord Jesus Christ: as to his humanity, he was born a descendant of David."
If it's true that Christ already has existed in the beginning, then there is no need of a promise regarding the Christ's existence.
Let us examine John 1:1, 14 then:
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth"
It says and the word was with God. If the word is Christ which is already existed and God in the state of being, then how many gods do you have now? A God who is with God?
It says the word was God. If we are to consult the Greek Scriptures we can clearly see that the term God or "theos" was used as an adjective not a noun. That is why in Greek it was wriiten as: "theos" and not "o theos." Thus in other rendition of the Bible it is written as the "word was divine"
What does it mean? In Luke 1:37, the word of God is not without power.
It says in verse "14" that the word became flesh. Of course the plan of God became flesh or man. When? When Christ was born of a woman (Gal. 4:4). It was the plan of God about Christ which became flesh and not God became flesh.
John 1:18 according to you states:
"No one has ever seen God, but God the One and Only, who is at the Father's side, has made him known." I can see you qouted this from the "New International Version"
How about we consult the "King James Version":
"No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him"
The one who have seen and declared about God was the Begotten Son. Why do I accept it as the more accurate translation of the verse? The scriptures ought not to contradict each other (I Cor 2:13). If we are to accept the New International Versions' translation of the verse, it will contradict what Christ declared about God in John 17:1, 3 that the only true God is the Father and not Him.
This is what others say about this verse:
No men have seen God. Christ saw God. Therefore, Christ is not man but God.
This is what the scriptures says:
"No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him."
The scripture did not say that Christ is God nor Christ is not man. "No man hath seen God" does not mean that Christ is not man because He himself so declares that He is man (John 8:40).
Just like the verse Romans 3:10, it states:
"As it is written: "There is none righteous, no, not one;" It does not necessarily means that no one is indeed righteous because we know Christ is righteous (I John 2:1 New International Version) "Jesus Christ, the Righteous One."
Nienie
Glad you joined our wonderful internet family, sharing the love of Christ, learning and growing in your spiritual life.And as a bonus making wonderful friends.
May you experience a wonderful fellowship and growth with all the others by joining in the groups and forums and share the love of Christ.
Blessings Nienie
Oct 20, 2009
Pastor Bob B
Greetings in the Lord! This is Bob, one of TheNET Moderators. Welcome! We're glad you are here!
Unlike some other social networks, we prohibit advertising, doing business, asking for money, goods, or personal information or sending spam. Please do not do these things or you may be banned from this network and we certainly would not want that to happen! For more information, please read our Membership Agreement.
I have included some links to help you navigate around the site. You may want to check out the Footprints group, the Links for Growth forum for great tips on how to grow in Christ, and Miracle Grow to help you get closer to God every day.
Once again, thanks for joining TheNET. I hope you make lots of good friends here and keep growing in the wisdom and knowledge of the Lord.
Don't hesitate to ask if you have any questions. I look forward to getting to know you.
In the love of Jesus
Bob
Oct 21, 2009
Tonya Hill
Christian Glitter by www.christianglitter.com
Welcome!!!!
Oct 21, 2009
Hellofull
Thanks for the greetings and welcomes.
Oct 21, 2009
Hellofull
Peter himself was called Cephas (John 1:42), meaning Stone. It doesn't mean that Peter is a stone in his nature.
And even "James the son of Zebedee and John the brother of James, to whom He gave the name Boanerges, that is, "Sons of Thunder"; (Mark 3:17). It doesn't mean that Zebedee is a Thunder in his nature nor his sons are thunders.
Even Elijah which means "God is Lord," Elisha which means "God is Salvation," and Daniel which means "God is Judge." All of them are men. The names they have don't have anything to do with their state of being.
Just like our Lord Jesus Christ, one of His names is Immanuel, which means "God with us." It has nothing to do with His state of being.
Oct 22, 2009
Hellofull
"Jesus said to them, "Most assuredly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM."
What does it mean that before Abraham was our Lord Jesus Christ?
In I Peter 1:20 Today's English Version, this is what is written:
"He had been chosen by God before the creation of the world and was revealed in these last days for your sake."
He was in the plan of God even before the world was created or even before Abraham.
Oct 22, 2009
Hellofull
About John 1:1, 14. It doesn't teaches about the divinity of Christ either. Confusions about this verse arose because of the term "word." What does it mean anyway? Word of God or a plan. It doesn't mean Christ who is already existed.
Is it in the scriptures that Christ began as a plan or a promise of God?
In Romans 1:2-3 Today's English Version, this is what is written:
"The Good News was promised long ago by God through his prophets, as written in the Holy Scriptures. It is about his Son, our Lord Jesus Christ: as to his humanity, he was born a descendant of David."
If it's true that Christ already has existed in the beginning, then there is no need of a promise regarding the Christ's existence.
Let us examine John 1:1, 14 then:
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth"
It says and the word was with God. If the word is Christ which is already existed and God in the state of being, then how many gods do you have now? A God who is with God?
It says the word was God. If we are to consult the Greek Scriptures we can clearly see that the term God or "theos" was used as an adjective not a noun. That is why in Greek it was wriiten as: "theos" and not "o theos." Thus in other rendition of the Bible it is written as the "word was divine"
What does it mean? In Luke 1:37, the word of God is not without power.
It says in verse "14" that the word became flesh. Of course the plan of God became flesh or man. When? When Christ was born of a woman (Gal. 4:4). It was the plan of God about Christ which became flesh and not God became flesh.
Oct 22, 2009
Hellofull
John 1:18 according to you states:
"No one has ever seen God, but God the One and Only, who is at the Father's side, has made him known." I can see you qouted this from the "New International Version"
How about we consult the "King James Version":
"No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him"
The one who have seen and declared about God was the Begotten Son. Why do I accept it as the more accurate translation of the verse? The scriptures ought not to contradict each other (I Cor 2:13). If we are to accept the New International Versions' translation of the verse, it will contradict what Christ declared about God in John 17:1, 3 that the only true God is the Father and not Him.
This is what others say about this verse:
No men have seen God. Christ saw God. Therefore, Christ is not man but God.
This is what the scriptures says:
"No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him."
The scripture did not say that Christ is God nor Christ is not man. "No man hath seen God" does not mean that Christ is not man because He himself so declares that He is man (John 8:40).
Just like the verse Romans 3:10, it states:
"As it is written: "There is none righteous, no, not one;" It does not necessarily means that no one is indeed righteous because we know Christ is righteous (I John 2:1 New International Version) "Jesus Christ, the Righteous One."
Oct 22, 2009