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When was the Holy Spirit Given?

This question came up in my reading of Psalms, where in 51:11, David says: Do not cast me from your presence or take your Holy Spirit from me.

So I looked up information on this:

John 7:39
    The Holy Ghost was not yet given; because that Jesus was not yet glorified.

Acts 1:16
    ... which the Holy Ghost by the mouth of David spake....

Luke 1:15, 41, 67
    He [John the Baptist] shall be filled with the Holy Ghost, even from his mother's womb. (v.15)

    Elisabeth was filled with the Holy Ghost. (v.41)

    Zacharias was filled with the Holy Ghost. (v.67)

Now there's a whole lot more in both new and old, but this gives an idea of what I'm questioning.

So I thought, perhaps the Holy Spirit was there, but the "infilling" was what happened in the N.T. But then I go back to John 7:39.

I can't seem to find enough online to explain this and was wondering if anyone had any insight into what this might mean.

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Permalink Reply by Amanda on November 4, 2013 at 2:35pm

Was He saying only that, or was he making it easier for them to understand his meaning by drawing a parallel between two different things: The sick need a physician the same as sinners need to be made righteous ???

:)

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Permalink Reply by Carla on November 4, 2013 at 2:52pm

I see your point.. could be. Both things are true.

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Permalink Reply by Amanda on November 4, 2013 at 3:02pm

Yes, in context, Jesus is saying the sick need a doctor, not the well just as sinners need Jesus, not the righteous.

Permalink Reply by Carla on November 4, 2013 at 3:24pm

I'm not convinced that is the clear context.. but I do see the parallel. :-)

Permalink Reply by Amanda on November 4, 2013 at 3:54pm

I listened to Mark 2 on Hear the Word Audio Bible today. It begins with Jesus preaching the word to them and telling a paralytic that his sins were forgiven. The scribes began having thoughts and questions in their hearts when Jesus said that to the paralytic.

And immediately Jesus, perceiving in his spirit that they thus questioned within themselves, said to them, “Why do you question these things in your hearts? Which is easier, to say to the paralytic, ‘Your sins are forgiven,’ or to say, ‘Rise, take up your bed and walk’? But that you may know that the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins” —he said to the paralytic— “I say to you, rise, pick up your bed, and go home.” (Mark 2:8-11 ESV)

From my POV, we must read into the text to say things like the paralytic was sick because he was a sinner. I'm not saying you're saying that but it never says that. It's two different things because Jesus asks them which thing is easier.

What I do see in the text is that Jesus could heal both the physically sick and forgive their sins, two different things, and this is the basis for the parallel He then makes in verse 17, when the scribes saw that He was eating with sinners and tax collectors. It says in verse 5 that Jesus saw the faith of the ones who came to Him bringing the paralytic. The paralytic had two different needs for two different things. It's what I see anyway.

That is not to say that a physical illness is never caused by sinning. But in context here, this is what Mark 2:17 is saying -- in this context, which is important to remember. Context is very important, as you know. Those sinners and tax collectors needed righteousness, just as the sick need a doctor, not the well. A paralytic needs physical healing from a doctor; a sinner needs forgiveness of sins from God. Jesus could supply both.

Permalink Reply by Seek on November 12, 2013 at 6:48am