I just read a devotion that can be like a good smack upside the head:
It stated that religion is dangerous and would rather debate an issue than do something about it. They said we shouldn't get you sidetracked into a religious debate or get all hung up on theological questions. That the difference between religion and the love of God is that religion argues while love acts.
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To the question can a demonic possessed person physically attack a child of God ... the answer is yes and has happened on the mission field, among other places, many times. Spiritually we are secure. Paul was physically attacked by humans and God did not stop it. God could and at times does, but not always. The same principle can be applied to the demonic as well.
The demonically possessed are not to be trifled with. They are dangerous. They can be overcome and can be cast out, but that does not mean that they are not dangerous.
Mary,
A person can have all the right credentials and pedigree, but their heart can be far from God
Well said
Eric,
To add to what you are saying. Spiritually we are safe when we are in Him and He in us, but physically there are dangers when engaging the demonically possessed individual(s).
I think as an opinion that most of the dangers come from ignorance and/or arrogance when dealing with the spirit realm.
Yet Amanda brings up the point of where it mentions lunatic, that Jesus was talking about a demon. Also with the woman bowed over, He calls it a "spirit" of infirmity. After Christ, Paul says if any are sick among you to bring them to the elders. He's speaking to the church, the born again.
Yet there's also "In My name they will cast out demons; they will speak with new tongues; they will take up serpents; and if they drink anything deadly, it will by no means hurt them; they will lay hands on the sick, and they will recover."
This, like the passage on lunatic, is listing casting out demons and laying hands on the sick as two separate items.
So with all this, it's pretty apparent that it is not cut and dry, something that is plain and cannot be questioned at all.
With that said, can we say one who believes in casting demons out of the saved is teaching a false gospel or simply that they believe that could be a possibility based on scripture linking sickness and demons? Or perhaps even their idea of such, in their minds, doesn't differ from what we consider oppression?
Mat 4:24 NASB The news about Him spread throughout all Syria; and they brought to Him all who were ill, those suffering with various diseases and pains, demoniacs, epileptics, paralytics; and He healed them.
Matthew 4:24 even if understood as stated in the KJV is not dealing with children of God who have been redeemed by the blood of the Lamb, regenerated and are indwelt by Holy Spirit. Thus, Matthew 4 sheds no light on the subject of demon possession and the child of God.
Mark 16 speaks of what the church will do in His name, but does not identify that the casting out will be the casting out of demons from a child of God.
You can question all you want and should until your mind is settled on the matter, but the question remains ... give one example from the Word of God of a child of God being demon possessed and requiring someone to cast the demon out of them.
Regarding your last paragraph only a fool would attempt to cast out a demon and not be sure that it is a demon they are seeking to cast out. There is a great difference from saying that demons can cause sickness, have caused sickness or is causing the sickness. You do not cast out oppression, you pray against it.
Lastly, do yo realize in the second article the moment he states that he asked the Lord and the Lord told him "such and such" he is presenting this no longer as his opinion, but rather as God's word that must be accepted as true ... yet it does not align with the Word of God and therefore cannot be true.
Lord Bless,
LT
Lastly, do yo realize in the second article the moment he states that he asked the Lord and the Lord told him "such and such" he is presenting this no longer as his opinion, but rather as God's word that must be accepted as true ... yet it does not align with the Word of God and therefore cannot be true.
Seek,
I can't point to exact quotes or even context but I can pretty assuredly say I know you've spoken of people mishearing God then getting discouraged when something doesn't happen the way they thought God told them.
There is a difference between your question and what was stated in article 2. I will come back to that below. When one believes they have heard from God they need to go to the Word of God to first see if what they think they have heard aligns with Him. If it does not it cannot have been God. We also have precedence in Scripture that we are to take time and be sure before we act, but once sure … then act. We live in a time where it is vogue to claim to have had a personal word from God … in fact unless you do in some circles you are looked down on. Thus, because of the pressure to hear God in order to be “normal” many are opening themselves up to the deception of the enemy who masquerades as an angel of light. Lastly, if it did not happen like they thought God told them then the reality is God did not tell them. There is quite a bit more that could be said on this, but I will stop here.
Lastly, do yo realize in the second article the moment he states that he asked the Lord and the Lord told him “such and such” he is presenting this no longer as his opinion, but rather as God’s word that must be accepted as true … yet it does not align with the Word of God and therefore cannot be true. (LT’s comment)
So he couldn't have misheard?
No. He states he had a conversation with the Lord. I am not aware of one example in Scripture where God spoke a clear statement (and not prophecy) that the hearer later found out that they misunderstood and operated on a false premise. He does not say I believe this is what the Lord told me … He says the Lord told ne such and such and now he teaches it as fact.
And I still don't see where it does or doesn't line up with something that is not In the Word. Absence of a clear reference isn't the same as saying scripture says something. In other words, because it doesn't specifically say born again cannot be possessed, that doesn't mean absence of such a statement that they can be proves the opposite.
You do not build a doctrine on that which is missing. Doctrine is determined from that which is stated. There are many texts that give us reason why this cannot be, but there are no texts that give credence to this belief that a child of God can be demonically possessed.
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