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Reading the Bible
The most glaring is this:
In Isaiah 9:3, the KJB says:
Thou hast multiplied the nation, and not increased the joy ...
The NIV says:
You have enlarged the nation and increased their joy...
As the article says, it can't be both. Do you use other versions? If so, have you ever noticed such differences?
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Replies to This Discussion
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Permalink Reply by Leonard T on
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Yet, the original text you have is not an original, but a copy of the original, or a copy of a copy ... It is also necessary to adjust the syntax in order to translate into English that is understandable :-)
Also in translation did they choose the correct corresponding English word to clearly give the true meaning of the text. Many words do not have an exact word in English. Do a quick search on any Hebrew or Greek word using the Strong's and see how many different English words a particular Greek or Hebrew word has been translated into. There is some assumption made based on context.
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Permalink Reply by Seek on
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Most of the translation tools actually give the definitions as well as how it is used elsewhere in Scripture. And the translated words are shown directly under what looks to be the chicken scratch letters they used in those times. LOL
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Permalink Reply by Ananda Welikala on
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It's very clear that the ACTUAL ORIGINALS have gone into dust. No Bible scholar will ever say that there are the original manuscripts still available. But they will readily say that what is available are very faithfully copied COPIES of the actual originals. Before the faithful copies turned into dust, scribes copied the faithfully copied copies and wrote brand new copies and they did so very faithfully. The result of the copies being copied accurately is that the Scholars who wrote the KJV had very accurately copied manuscripts to use. Thus we can assuredly say that the KJV is the closest translation ever written to line up with the "originals." That being the case, why learn from any other Bible than the KJV. It's like somebody buying a fake painting thinking that it is an original. Only a close examination will reveal the truth regarding the fake painting.
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If you accept that the manuscripts used for the KJV are the only true copies and you base that evidence on using it as the standard you have employed circular logic. You argument is something like this:
The KJV has the most accurate manuscripts. How do you know? Because a study of the KJV reveals those manuscripts to be accurate. manuscripts.
Your bias again clouds your vision. You believe that the manuscripts used for the KJV translation are the accurate copies because you believe the KJV is given to man by God and not simply a translation into English of God's Word. Therefore, when confronted with evidence that older manuscripts have been discovered you simply dismiss them because in your mind the KJV is the only and final English version. I would venture a guess that you believe the only true translations in other languages are the ones translated from the KJV and not by them going back to the manuscripts to translate into their own language.
You are free to believe the KJV is the only version. AAG, including me, does not take that position.
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Ananda, I'd still like to know what you think about the KJV adding to the Lord's Prayer from the original Scripture. I hope you're not stuck on the KJV as the only version without checking facts. Rigid belief makes us unteachable and halts growth.
I read the arguments on why the KJV was the only real translation. That's why I started this topic. But in discussing this, it led me to compare KJV with word for word translations. And I found the added text that none of the KJV only proponents wanted to mention. -
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Btw, I believe whole-heartedly that the Creator God of the universe a.k.a. Jesus Christ, the God-Man knows what He has done, knows what He's doing, and knows what He will be doing from this very moment on. That being the case, He would NEVER leave any human being bereft of knowledge, knowledge that's VITALLY important for the SALVATION of the Elect. If a person does not have access to the knowledge that's required for him/her, eventually, getting into heaven, it means just one thing: he/she is NOT among the elect.
What the Merciful God of creation has done for mankind, in this regard, is very clear! That's why I believe that He did not leave the English speaking peoples of the world "groping in the dark," for the knowledge required for Salvation from hell. Since He's ALL-Knowing from beginning to end, Alpha to Omega, He's done everything that's needed for the salvation from hell for every one whose name has already been recorded in the Lamb's Book of Life. Not one person whose name had been written, even before they were conceived, will be found standing before Jesus Christ at His White Throne Judgment. Every person who stands there will be one who REFUSED to be born again.
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Ananda,
You are now clouding the issue we have been discussing by bringing in other topics. Thus, without venturing off on the topics of salvation and the elect I will attempt to keep us focused on your assertion that the KJV is the only true English version.
Here is my question:
You said "That's why I believe that He did not leave the English speaking peoples of the world 'groping in the dark,'" If the KJV, as you assert, is the answer for English speaking people so that they do not grope in darkness my question is what did English speaking people do before 1611 regarding the darkness? Was there no light and all they could do is grope in darkness? Were all those English speaking people who died before 1611 condemned to hell for eternity since they did not have the KJV? Did God leave them without light until 1611?
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I don't know...but millions may have got saved before 1611. It's no different with the people who got saved before Jesus Christ, the God-Man shed His SIN-CLEANSING Blood and died! Heb. ch. 11 gives my a "clue" as to what may have happened. Of course, when I " look at" how many got "saved" from the Great world-wide Flood of Noah's Day, and if that could be taken as a "pattern", then I am afraid the number of people who got "a ticket to heaven" would be dismally low.
The truth is still valid that all those whose NAMES are already recorded in
heaven, be they Pre-Cross or Post-Cross human beings, to be its citizens will enter it, no matter what! The reason? Would an All-Knowing God write names in a Book in heaven, knowing that down the road some of them will not get into His presence, when their time came? What would happen if some whose names were written didn't in the end didn't make it? Satan will have a "field-day" mocking Almighty, All-Knowing God...don't you think? Here's one question Satan might ask of God: How can you say you are OMNISCIENT when some human beings you thought would get into heaven did not get in? All powerful God is not going to leave room for Satan, a created being, to mock him with even one word!
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Again, you have moved from your assertion that the KJV is the only true version to talking about salvation. Salvation is a good topic for another discussion, but it has not been the focus of our discussion here.
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Before the KJB was made available to the English speakers what did they have? Greek and Latin Bibles and many in English. Only the English Bibles were useful for England. But they were all considered unsatisfactory for so many reasons. That's why the KJV was "made." Fifty, highly qualified scholars "laboured" for some years. The scholars were well versed in the "original" languages. Thus, they brought out into the English-world, a vary accurate VERSION--the KJV in 1611. From that time on the KJV has stood the test of time. No other English translation had that "honor." Up until about 200 yrs ago, nobody complained about the KJV. People just learned to enjoy the "language" of it, like learning anything else that's worthwhile. I personally believe that SATAN stepped in, in anger, and threw a wrench into the "gearbox", as more and more people in the world, learning the English language began to read the KJV.
Like Pharaoh said the Moses: " Go...but not too far away." The KJV was like "going too far" for Satan. So he devised not good versions but PERVERSIONS. So that's where the world is today. (If you can't break it from without...break it from within)!
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So why did 50 highly qualified scholars miss the part about adding anything to the Word and added text to the Lord's Prayer?
All they had was Greek and Hebrew. KJV was translated, as is any language. We can call it English but in reality it isn't. It's "old" English. You can't give a Korean Bible to China man though they're both Asian. To break it down closer...I learned years ago that the Spanish I was taught was quite different from the Spanish spoken in Mexico. Two different dialects. So while I was able to tutor 2 Cuban refugees in English, I found some differences in their language from the Spain Spanish dialect I was taught.
NIV, NLT, whichever ones stay true to the original Greek and Hebrew, have recognized that KJV is no longer a spoken language.
Since you stand by the KJV and have no doubt read it, what are these:
Isaiah 14:23, God says of Babylon, “I will sweep it with the besom of destruction.”
I Kings 8:47, “Yet if they shall bethink themselves in the land.”
Exodus 9:31. It says “the flax was bolled and no, it's not boiled.
These are just a few. -
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