http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jesus_and_the_woman_taken_in_adultery#...
We've discussed some the textual foundations upon which rest different Bible versions.
Earliest reference to the beloved story of the woman taken into adultery is late 4th/early 5th century. It doesn't appear in Bibles before that.
Should this passage be in the NIV?
With it bracketed in the NIV is it really "in" anyhow?
In the NIV deletion thread, David described "inerrancy" as applying to the original texts. Does that thus, make this passage other than inerrant Scripture?
Thoughts?
I'm interested in hearing various perspectives.
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