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Did Jesus wait to preach until He was 30 because that was when He become filled with the Spirit after baptism? But, Jesus is the Spirit, right? I've just been thinking about this lately and going back & forth with it. I must admit that I haven't looked into it deeper on my own but just wanted to see your thoughts on it. Thanks

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But living a godly life means not sinning much at all. If being able to do what Christ did ... The miracles of walking on water and raising Lazarus and healing and casting out demons is dependent upon how godly someone is, then no one will ever be able to do what Jesus did because no one is sinless or is able to do God's will always, as Jesus did. Perhaps we can aspire to that level and aim for it but we do have to battle the flesh. Therefore, we are always going to fall short.

First, I want to clarify, not for you but for others who might read this and be confused about my meaning when I say I used to believe that Jesus was impeccable but now I am unsure, that I am not saying I think Jesus might have sinned. Jesus knew no sin. Jesus didn't sin and that is an absolute truth. 

But could he have sinned? 

I am sure you are familiar with the theological terms that have been pinned on this topic about Jesus but others may not be familiar with the terms-- impeccable (incapable of sinning), or peccable (capable of sinning, although remaining sinless)
 
Unregenerate people and the fallen angels are not able not to sin.

Adam and Eve before the Fall and born again people are able not to sin and able to sin both. 

God is not able to sin.

Was it possible for Jesus not to have resisted temptation?

That Jesus was impeccable seems most likely the truth. All of His miracles and works, I always attributed those to the signs and wonders that would set apart the true Messiah from all the false ones. I always thought that only the Son of God would be able to raise a man after the man had been dead four days. No one before or after has been able to raise a person who has been dead that long. I always thought Jesus was using His deity to perform that particular miracle. I always thought the meaning of all the miracles was to help people believe in Jesus. 

Yes, Peter and Paul did miracles but what they did was nothing like what Jesus did. In fact, we only get a glimpse of what Jesus did because John 21:25 says, Jesus did many other things as well. If every one of them were written down, I suppose that even the whole world would not have room for the books that would be written.

Maybe that is true for the apostles, too. I don't know. But it's not true for me.

How could Jesus do all of that just as a man without using His deity?

Was Paul and Peter perfected and without sin when the Holy Spirit performed miracles through them?

 

How can any miracle be performed, but by God alone.

 

Did Jesus, Who is God, or Did the Holy Spirit , Who is God perform the miracles. This is part one of your real question. The other part is could Jesus have sinned. I say no because He is God and god cannot sin. He operated as a man, but was still always God. If He sinned the Trinity would have been forever mared, but that is not possible.

 

The Bible says this:

Luk_4:14 Jesus returned to Galilee in the power of the Spirit, and news about him spread through the whole countryside.

Act_9:40 Peter sent them all out of the room; then he got down on his knees and prayed. Turning toward the dead woman, he said, "Tabitha, get up." She opened her eyes, and seeing Peter she sat up. (Note: God worked through Peter to raise the dead woman).

 

Here is what we do know without question:
All true miracles are performed by God.

God cannot sin.

 

The how we get there is somewhat debatable.

1) Could Jesus have sinned (I say no).

2) How were the majority, if not all, of the miracles performed? (I say IMO by the Holy Spirit through the God/man who walked among us as a man by choice). This is not something I teach as doctrine, but share as an opinion.

 

Lastly you said:

How could Jesus do all of that just as a man without using His deity?

By the Holy Spirit performing the miracles.

 

Lord Bless,

LT

 

Jesus was fully human but He did super-human things. Did He do those through the power of the Holy Spirit and that means we also can? Or does our sin nature get in the way?

Or could it be all dependent on the will and purpose of of God as He always did the will of the Father. The miracles are in alignment with what He was supposed to do to accomplish the task for which He was sent.

 

Lord Bless,

LT

But we don't always do the will of the Father and I'm not sure if it's even possible that anyone will ever be able to always do God's will fully. If being able to operate in the gifts of the Spirit depends on how sinless we are, then none of us will be able to reach the same level as Christ here on earth. That's what I am trying to say and that's where my confusion is now. If Christ's miracles were all done through the power of the Holy Spirit and Christ was doing them as a human dependent upon the Spirit, and if we are able to do the same, then how does sin factor in to this equation? Do you understand what I am trying to ask?

Amanda,

 

Was Peter and Paul perfect or being perfected while God was using them in a mighty way. As amazing at it sounds God uses imperfect people like you and me to carry out His will and plan :-)

 

Lord Bless,

LT

Jesus was fully human, yes, and fully God.

lololol. Is this like which came first the chicken or the egg?

:-)

No. It's not like that ... Or at least that's not how I meant it.
The Bible calls Jesus both the "last Adam" and the "second Man." Paul wrote to the Corinthians.

So it is written: "The first man Adam became a living being" the last Adam, a life-giving spirit. The spiritual did not come first, but the natural, and after that the spiritual. The first man was of the dust of the earth, the second man from heaven. As was the earthly man, so are those who are of the earth; and as is the man from heaven, so also are those who are of heaven (1 Corinthians 15:45-48).

I am not sure if it can be both -- that Jesus did miracles only as a man but was not able to sin because He was God. I am confused about it now.

Could it be that certain criteria are being placed on Him to operate in a manner that aligns with what makes sense to us? Why can't He operate as a man empowered by the Holy Spirit and still not sin or be capable of sinning? Can God sin? Is Jesus God? Was He ever not God? Did He veil Himself in the flesh? We could debate what that means, but we know He is eternally God and thus He could not ever sin or we would be saying that God was capable of sin ... that cannot be.

 

Lord Bless,

LT

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