Don't know why I never thought of this, but it makes sense.
http://www.jesus-is-savior.com/Believer's%20Corner/Doctrines/it_was...
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Tom,
My intentions are not to argue, but to edify one another. Here is my biblical opinion of the article you gave a link to and a quote from it below, feel free to challenge my biblical understanding. I never get offended in such exchanges, unless you go out your way to be offensive hahaha then is on.... hahahaha Just Kidding of course. hahaha
Throughout my life I've heard some preachers make the horrible mistake of saying that Jesus' work of redemption was "finished" upon the cross — It was not! Even a small child can reason that Christ's work of redemption could not yet have been completed, because Jesus hadn't even died yet when He made that statement. Jesus hadn't been buried yet. Jesus hadn't risen from the dead yet. How could the Lord's work of redemption have been completed when the Gospel is based upon the death, burial and resurrection of Jesus?
I will give you the easy answer to the question asked, "How could the Lord's work of redemption have been completed when the Gospel is based upon the death, burial and resurrection of Jesus?" using an article from our good and trusted freinds at Qotquestions.com and my two cents after that.
The Gospel includes:
Christ's virgin birth
Christ's perfect life
Christ's death and resurrection
His ascension and glorification
THE GOSPEL IS ONE THING, HIS WORK OF REDEMPTION IS WITHIN THE GOSPEL, BUT IS NOT ONE AND THE SAME, HENCE THE DISTINCTION OF THE USE OF THE TWO TERMS.
Question: "What did Jesus mean when He said, 'It is finished'?"
Answer: Of the last sayings of Christ on the cross, none is more important or more poignant than, “It is finished.” Found only in the Gospel of John, the Greek word translated “it is finished” is tetelestai, an accounting term that means “paid in full.” When Jesus uttered those words, He was declaring the debt owed to His Father was wiped away completely and forever. Not that Jesus wiped away any debt that He owed to the Father; rather, Jesus eliminated the debt owed by mankind—the debt of sin.
At the cross Christ did redeemed his church, his people, his sheep. His death is not a potential redemption, but an actual effectual ONE, a buying of his church/sheep/people. I will prove it with bible verses.
The article is full of wrong information and mixing of terms. It is also wrongly representing John F. MacArthur, a blessed brother in the Lord, by calling him, see below, an unsaved Modernist, wow, how dare David J. Stewart write that of a beautiful man of God. He is really showing how wrong he is, David is showing he is very mistaken.
John F. MacArthur, an unsaved Modernist who denies the saving power of Jesus' literal liquid blood, has this to say concerning Jesus' statement "it is finished " in John 19:30:
Jesus's liquid blood has no saving power, that is simply blood cells. His blood represents his death, His death has the power to redeemed, not the plasma, but in order to redeemed (buy back) he had to pay off the debt owed to his Father, for our sin, with his death.
In Him we have redemption through His blood, (through his death) the forgiveness of our trespasses, according to the riches of His grace.
"For even the Son of Man did not come to be served, but to serve, and to give His life a ransom for many."
But by His doing you are in Christ Jesus, who became to us wisdom from God, and righteousness and sanctification, and redemption,
…5For there is one God and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus, 6 who gave Himself as a ransom for all
THE RANSOM (THE PAYMENT) WAS GIVEN FOR THE REDEMPTION (BUYING BACK) OF THE MANY, HIS CHURCH.
who gave Himself for us to redeem us from every lawless deed, and to purify for Himself a people for His own possession, zealous for good deeds.
Christ redeemed us from the curse of the Law, having become a curse for us--for it is written, "CURSED IS EVERYONE WHO HANGS ON A TREE"--
"Be on guard for yourselves and for all the flock, among which the Holy Spirit has made you overseers, to shepherd the church of God which He purchased with His own blood.
whom God displayed publicly as a propitiation in His blood through faith This was to demonstrate His righteousness, because in the forbearance of God He passed over the sins previously committed;
Tom - I highly recommend that you do not take anything written by David J. Stewart as sound doctrine in view of his obvious mistakes interpreting the word of God.
He continues and states the following:
Mr. MacArthur horribly contradicts the Scriptures...
"And if Christ be not risen, then is our preaching vain, and your faith is also vain ... And if Christ be not raised, your faith is vain; ye are yet in your sins." —1st Corinthians 15:13,17
"Who was delivered for our offences, and was raised again for our justification." —Romans 4:25
Paul is teaching in the Resurrection chapter of 1st Cor. 15 that if Christ has not risen than we will not rise either, it has nothing to do with redemption.
He was raised for our JUSTIFICATION!!!! JUSTIFICATION IS NOT REDEMPTION.
The writer of the article is mixing terms.
Tom - stay away from such badly written articles unless you are studying them to debunk them.
Blessing Tom.
Hi David, I wanted this article to be wrong, this is why I posted to get some help. What exactly was Jesus speaking of when He said "It is finished"? Was it forgiveness of Sin?
Thanks for posting bro Tom.
Question: "What did Jesus mean when He said, 'It is finished'?"
Answer: Of the last sayings of Christ on the cross, none is more important or more poignant than, “It is finished.” Found only in the Gospel of John, the Greek word translated “it is finished” is tetelestai, an accounting term that means “paid in full.” When Jesus uttered those words, He was declaring the debt owed to His Father was wiped away completely and forever. Not that Jesus wiped away any debt that He owed to the Father; rather, Jesus eliminated the debt owed by mankind—the debt of sin.
It means He "Paid in full" the debt we could not paid. In other words - He redeemed us.
I've always had issues with David Stewart's teachings. His teachings are so 'out there' on many things. It's as if he seeks to be debatable about things that don't even have to be debatable. One of his teachings is that it is NOT wrong to ask someone in heaven to pray for you. He asks, "Is that not what happens here on earth every time you ask a Christian brother or sister to pray for you? Did not James advice us to call for the elders of the church when we're sick? (James 5:14). So there must be a big difference between asking someone to pray for you, verses expecting someone to reconcile things with God for you.
It wouldn't be wrong for me to ask my departed mother in heaven to pray for me, anymore than it would be wrong for me to ask my pastor or a friend to pray for me. Asking someone to pray for you is very different than asking someone to intercede for you."
This is just one issue I find with him that is way off from what Scriptures truly teach.
My simple answer would be, when Jesus said it is finished, He meant He had finished the work that the Father gave Him to do, in other words, My job here on earth is done, now the Father will do the rest.
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