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intentional sin
God hates sin and were to confess sin but what if a person dies a quick death and they have no time to repent of a intentional sin they kelp comitting will they still go to heaven just something i wanted to no
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Permalink Reply by Tammy on
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I'm having a hard time with you calling a person 'qualified'. The only thing that qualifies a person to enter heaven is the sacrifice of Christ. That's it. We won't be bringing our resumes.
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Permalink Reply by Ananda Welikala on
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There is only ONE way to qualify to get into the very presence of INFINITELY Holy God and that is to be Holy As He is Holy. It is God Himself who said: "Be ye Holy as I am Holy." 1st Peter 1:16. If such Holiness is not possible, then All-knowing God would never have told us mere human beings to be Holy as He is. Btw, no sin as even the size of a speck of dust will be allowed in the very presence of infinitely Holy God.
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Permalink Reply by Leonard T on
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Two questions arise from your response that make a huge impact on what you believe if you get these wrong, especially #1:
1) Where does this holiness come from and how is it achieved in the born again child of God?
2) Is God omnipresent as described throughout Scripture, especially in Psalm 139? Did Job come before God as recorded in the Book of Job? Is it really accurate to say that no sin will be allowed in His presence in light of the fact that God is omnipresent (meaning actually everywhere) and the fact that Satan spoke with God regarding Job?
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Permalink Reply by Amanda on
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“But now the righteousness of God has been manifested apart from the law, although the Law and the Prophets bear witness to it— the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all who believe. For there is no distinction: for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, and are justified by his grace as a gift, through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus, whom God put forward as a propitiation by his blood, to be received by faith. This was to show God’s righteousness, because in his divine forbearance he had passed over former sins. It was to show his righteousness at the present time, so that he might be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus. Then what becomes of our boasting? It is excluded. By what kind of law? By a law of works? No, but by the law of faith. For we hold that one is justified by faith apart from works of the law.”
Romans 3:21-28 ESV
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Permalink Reply by Carla on
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https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Habakkuk+1&version...
Ribbon, I know I've said that 'God can't look on sin'... We have to be careful with our words because a simple comment can bring on so much confusion.
Your question is an excellent one.
To 'look upon' in this case means to regard with pleasure or favor, care or have respect for.
H5027
נָבַט
nâbaṭ
naw-bat'
A primitive root; to scan, that is, look intently at; by implication to regard with pleasure, favor or care: - (cause to) behold, consider, look (down), regard, have respect, see.
The bible verse I think you are referring to is Habakkuk 1:13.
For God to 'look on us' is to have favor on us, or pleasure in us.
Habakkuk 1:13New American Standard Bible (NASB)
13 Your eyes are too pure to [a]approve evil,
And You can not look on wickedness with favor.
Why do You look with favor
On those who deal treacherously?
Why are You silent when the wicked swallow up
Those more righteous than they?(emphasis mine)
So, it means that God cannot give favor to or take pleasure in wickedness or evil. It doesn't mean that He can't physically look at it, it means that HE can't put His favor on it.
Habakkuk is upset because it seems that evil people are prosperous.
God responds to Habakkuk (verses 5-11) reminding him to not worry... God has not lost control, and HE is not favoring wickedness, HE is also not sitting idly by on His hands. You can read the chapter at the link up top.
Hope this helps a bit.
Blessings, Carla
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It's the scripture that was quoted in the morning worship sermon this past Sunday during my third visit there --Habakkuk 1:13. The minister focused on the word "favor" and was actually preaching about the words of Jesus on the cross, "My God, My God, why have You forsaken me?" He said it was a scream. He said darkness and silence was covering the land, and then there was this scream. He said it was from Psalm 22:1. He said the eternal bond between Father, Son, and Spirit hadn't been severed. The Father's love continued. He said it was still true what Jesus had said in John 16:32, "Behold, the hour is coming, indeed it has come, when you will be scattered, each to his own home, and will leave me alone. Yet I am not alone, for the Father is with me." ESV
He said Jesus was bearing sin and was experiencing the separation that sin brings. It was spiritual suffering. Christ's physical pain was immense and He was nearly dead even before the crucifixion but His greatest anguish was experienced then because of the loss of favor. Throughout His earthly life, Jesus was covered with God's favor. It was no longer shining on Him. He said that's why Jesus said My God instead of Father. He no longer had fellowship with God. But, the minister said, although he couldn't ever fully understand or explain this separation that Christ suffered, he still knows that when he sins, he feels the loss of fellowship, too. We all do. We feel the loss of favor. We'll never feel it to the degree that Christ experienced it but that's only because, if we know Him and He knows us, then He suffered it fully for us. We get a taste of it and that's bad enough. We all long for God's face to shine on us. But God won't look on sin with favor.
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Jesus Christ --God in human flesh--not only looked upon SIN but He took SIN, the sins of all humanity, UPON HIMSELF. That SIN was the sins of from Eve down to the last human being that will be born into this world. (One day on planet earth all births of human babies will come to an ABRUPT end.
Jesus died, voluntarily, shedding His INNOCENT BLOOD. That precious Blood WASHES AWAY every bit of sin from those who "GO" to Him repenting of their sins. Mat. 11:28: King James Version
Come unto me, all ye that labour and are heavy laden, and I will give you rest. ====Heavily Laden is of sins of a lifetime, past, present and future. Rest is ETERNAL rest from anymore sinning. When Jesus cried out: "It is finished" what He finished was what the Father sent Him down to do on planet earth. And that is to DIE for sinners as thier SUBSTITUTE--aka, the Unblemished, Innocent LAMB of Almighty God of the Old Testament Holy Scriptures. John 1:29: The next day John saw Jesus coming toward him, and said, “Behold! The Lamb of God who taketh away the sin of the world!
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Janie,
In addition to what has been said let me say that God's holiness is not contaminated by sin. Sin has contaminated God's creation, but not God. We know that God is omnipresent, meaning everywhere at once all of the time. Thus, we know that God's presence is in heaven at the throne and is in hell (and everywhere in-between). In hell His presence is not absent, but rather they cannot and will not experience His presence. At the cross the Father was not absent, but rather due to the sin placed upon Jesus the presence of the Father was veiled to Him.
Hope that helps.
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...God's holiness is not contaminated by sin.
This is something I've inquired about before -- how Jesus was able to stay ceremonially clean. It is taught that Jesus deliberately touched the unclean and let them touch Him because He was changing the law of God under the new covenant. I'm not sure that He changed it, as in it no longer mattered if those still under the Old Covenant were keeping it or not. I think it was to be kept until the New Covenant was in effect. So the truth is to be found in some other answer, IMO. He still told lepers that He cleansed to show themselves to the priest in alignment with the law of Moses. He also told the multitude to do as the Pharisees told them (but not to do what the Pharisees did).
Somehow Jesus remained ceremonially clean even though He touched the dead, touched lepers, allowed a sinful woman wash His feet and let another woman who was unclean touch Him as she was seeking healing, etc. There's no biblical account that states that Jesus had to go through ceremonial purification. The answer has to be that Jesus wasn't defiled by those who were unclean. Some say the turning of the water into wine was a symbol that Jesus was replacing ceremonial law with a different kind of purity. Was He? I think once the New Covenant was in effect, the ceremonial laws of purification were no longer necessary. So we do have a purity now that comes from the blood of the New Covenant. I believe He wasn't defiled by uncleanness because He was/is God. He was falsely accused, of course, of being unclean by those who didn't believe He was God.
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Permalink Reply by Mary O on
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Romans 3 is a good place to read. Ephesians is also a good read. I'm so in love with the book of Ephesians I wouldn't know where to start.
We don't qualify. If it were up to us to qualifying, I don't know what I'd do. We were all without God and without hope. I was a mess without God. He still helps me with my messes now and then. I'm a human being. It's much better with Him on my side. It was a cold and lonely feeling without God.
Love,
Mary
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Is it really accurate to say that no sin will be allowed in His presence in light of the fact that God is omnipresent (meaning actually everywhere) and the fact that Satan spoke with God regarding Job?
I know the above is a reply to another member but I wanted to comment on it. I always thought that God would not or could not look upon sin. I thought this was why Jesus came to cleanse and save. I thought when Jesus "while on the cross" asked God why He had forsaken Him. I was taught because God turned away because of the sin Jesus had to bare there. Now I am confused because I remember God and Satan speaking to one another. I guess I didnt think of Satan being with God. I do not believe though that any kind of sin will be allowed in His presence when Jesus comes for His bride.